Hello,
I recently had a colposcopy (three days ago) following an abnormal pap. My GP did the pap even though I was younger than they normally would, because I had persistent symptoms going on for about two years. Anyway, at the colposcopy appointment I first spoke with a nurse, who was “very sure” that the doctor wouldn’t find any lesions up there and that no biopsy would be taken. She said this because my pap result was only moderate, not severe, and that I was so young that its unlikely anything would be wrong.
The doctor came in and basically said the same as the nurse before starting the exam, again when she began the exam I had bleeding and pain, and she showed me that my cervix was very inflamed. After applying the vinegar she found a lesion and she did a biopsy (she originally said she didn’t think she would find anything).
After this she basically said I’m too young for my symptoms to be related to the lesion, and that the inflamed cervix, bleeding during the exam and after sex is probably because I “have an STI like chlamydia” and that she was going to test for that. Needless to say I was shocked she would say that, 1. because I was just tested for infections (and was negative for them) during my pap test three weeks ago and 2. because I’ve been in a monogamous relationship for three years.
I’m just confused as to what I should do now, should I go back to my GP?
I just find it very rude of her to assume that because I am young, and even though she saw a visible abnormality, that any symptoms I have are related to an STI.
Thanks for any help 
