New & confused! Married for 30yrs, together since our teens, one partner each - latest smear has come back as high risk HPV and I am just PUZZLED. I realise that the default is to assume some shenanigans but for many reasons, I can 100% confidently say that I/we must be the medical anomaly. Could this then be from the time my daughter couldn’t get rid of warts on her hands? Or from shaving, waxing, swimming pool, spa treatment? Or a false positive? The nurse could see a large ectropion and test says low-grade dysk so I’m booked for a colposcopy next month. I have Mirena & gel for menopause symptoms but originally went to GP with fortnightly spotting. So for the last 4 years or so I’ve had a lot of examining of my nether regions - just keen to shed any light on what’s happening! Thank you 
Hi @Confuseddotcom when you said you and your husband had 1 partner each, do you mean a different partner which you had prior to meeting each other? In which case this is likely where one of you contracted the virus. The majority of people who are sexually active have come into contact with this virus - 80%. Also, if either of you ‘fooled around’ as teens with other people (but didn’t actually have sex) then this too, could have resulted in spread. Testing for hpv only commenced in the uk in 2019 so it’s highly likely you have had hpv in the past and didn’t know. Hpv can remain dormant in your body for a very long time. Warts on hands arise from a different strain of hpv, so your daughter definitely did not pass this strain on to you. The other possibilities you mention - very unlikely but unfortunately not totally unheard of. Hope this helps!
Nope only each other. If I had any shadow of doubt, I would understand the results. I realise it’s easily the obvious answer and the go-to on everything that I’ve read. However, let’s say we take it out of the equation - because I 100% know that I can - do we have a virus on our hands that is now transmitting far more easily than anyone thought?
I absolutely believe you on this one and you certainly aren’t the first on this site to have tested positive under such circumstances. In fact I have come across a few posts from ladies who have tested positive despite not having any sexual contact. It’s really very worrying. When I first found out I tortured myself with fear of passing it onto my children via sponges, towels, bedsheets etc. I expect that most doctors would rule out this likelihood but I’m not so sure!
Thank you so much for hearing me, I really appreciate it. It’s just something I never thought would be happening to me but here we are, I guess now I just crack on!
Well I really hope everything goes well for you. I had high grade cells with CGIN at age 46. Had colposcopy and LLETZ (which were totally pain free for me) and have tested negative for hpv since, at my 6 month and 18 month check ups (test of cure smears). I was so shocked and worried at the time but feeling a lot more positive now! This forum really helped. All the very best of luck, let us know how you get on.
Hi Confused
Sorry to hear you are so worried
We recently had a lady come on here with similar circumstances to you
I posted a couple of times on her thread with some information you might find useful about HPV transmission:
https://forum.jostrust.org.uk/t/virgins-at-marriage-positive-hpv-now/60212/10
If you look at the numbers in there, the HPV in virgins is coming from SOMEWHERE, especially when you consider the study done on children and teens with oral HPV
Hope some of these responses help! X
