So I posted a couple of weeks ago about my issues which is now in my signature.
My colposcopy looked like CIN3 and that I would need treatment but they needed confirmation on grade before they are allowed to treat. The wait for results was 3 Weeks and when I was called in they took me in to the treatment room. But my biopsy results were good apparently. The histology report is. Clinical information : Cervical biopsies 2 o’clock +7 o’clock. Possible high grade squamous intraepithelial lesion on pap 08.09.15 no previous abnormal paps.
Appearance high grade lesion on colp.
Macroscopic description : A. 2 o’clock cervical biopsy one piece of tissue measuring 6mm across. ASP Cervical protocol. B. 7 o’clock cervical biopsy. One piece of tissue measuring 5mm across plus fragments. ASP Cervical protocol.
Microscopic examination.
A. Sections show tissue from the transformation zone of cervix. There are inflammatory changes. No change of CIN, hpv infection or glandular dysplasia /neoplasia are demonstrated.
B. Sections show tissue from the transformation zone of cervix with no significant changes. No change of CIN, HPV infection or glandular dysplasia /neoplasia are demonstrated.
Diagnosis. A 2 o’clock cervical biopsy : inflammatory changes.
B 7 o’clock cervical biopsy : no significant changes.
So they said it’s safe to follow up with repeat pap and colposcopy in 6 months. They also said there is a chance they missed the worst area’s to biopsy but not dysplasia altogether seems they used the vinegar and iodine. And because there is no sign of hpv it’s reassuring. My question is probably stupid but would my whole cervix be affected by hpv or just where the CIN is? I mean these are good results and I should be relieved but the whole “could” have missed the dysplasia is not reassuring at all. And why would my pap be possible high grade and looks high grade on colposcopy if nothing is there? Can inflammatory changes mimic CIN?
