Hope your all doing ok.
I have a question which im not sure anyone will be able to answer but just wanted to get your views on really. Basically i had my first smear this year which came back abnormal (high grade Dyskaryosis) i had Lletz which removed CIN 3 cells and have just had the results of my 6 month follow up smear which is Normal and no evidence of High risk HPV.
My Question is that because i had high risk Hpv and i have been with my boyfriend for 6 years will this mean he has HPV?
From what i've read it's seems very likely that it will have passed on from me to him and i know the immune system normally clears it within 2 years.
However, because i have given him oral sex a number of times over the past 6 years will this mean that i have oral HPV?
Im really worried about this because i know oral HPV can cause Oral cancer and that there is no way of testing or screening for it.
Does anyone know more about this? Thank you for taking the time to read this Xx