Confused about my biopsy results

I first found out I had abormal cells  - CIN1 after my 2nd smear in 2016. I'm 29. It was confirmed that I had high risk HPV (don't know which strain in particular) and I had a colposcopy where a biopsy was taken and CIN1 was confirmed. I was called back for another smear a year later in March and the results were unchanged - HPV detected and low grade abnormailites, I then went for a colposcopy in May where the doctor said an area had reacted to the acetic acid and  a couple of biopsies were taken. She also said I had a cervical ectropion which I'm not sure if this is linked to HPV/cell abnormalities.


So i've had the results back from my second biopsies and it has come back as "wart virus only detected - no abnormal cells" and I have been discharged back to standard tesing after 3 years.


I am a bit confused as to what this means and called the nurse to query  does "wart virus" mean a low risk strain of HPV that won't cause abormal cells? She didn't really seem to know but thought that the doctor had wrote "wart virus" as a term in general for HPV. I am therefore concerend that I still have a high risk strain and that either the biopsies were wrong or that the abnormal cells could still come back and 3 years is a long time to wait. I would have thought I should get another smear in 12 months time, or maybe they picked up a strain that's low risk? That's what i'm hoping for but I'm not sure if they test for the low risk strains in a biopsy...


Has anybody else had a similar experience or can put my mind at rest? I'm thinking of trying to get a private smear in a years time, but this can obviously be expenive. 


All i can really tell you is that sounds like Genital Warts which is a form of HPV. I was with someone before my smear and he then got checked told me he had GW then i went for my smear and i had HPV etc etc. I still have HPV and my body isnt fighting it on its own so i need to be a bit healthier maybe as your body usually fights this on its own.