I have had a bit of a whirlwind two months, hoping to hear some similar experiences or opinions to help me make sense of it all.
My husband and I have been trying to conceive and I had a chemical miscarriage in August that led me to an obgyn. I had not done a pap smear for quite a few years and decided to do one with HPV testing just to have all bases covered.
The smear came back as CIN3 and HPV positive (Negative for 16/18).
I was referred for a colposcopy. I was pretty confused as my cycles were normal (25-27 days regular cycles) and I did not have any bleeding or pain - but went anyway.
After going through the colposcopy in September, the biopsy returned negative for malignancy and dysplasia/CIN.
However, “mild acute on chronic cervicitis with focal microglandular endocervical hyperplasia,” “basal cell hyperplasia suggestive of HPV virus infection” and “reactive epithelial changes” were diagnosed. And that I should be followed up very closely due to the Pap smear CIN3 findings.
My gynae has just said not much else - other than to repeat the PAP SMEAR in December. She called the lab to have someone reassess the thinprep smear, and they confirmed there were a few CIN3 cells present.
- Has anyone ever had such a non-correlating result?
- I am wondering if this is a bigger issue that has been missed? How can a biopsy not detect some level of CIN if there were definitely CIN3 cells on my smear?
- Is it possible for the CIN3 transformation area to be further up in the cervix or is that a totally different type of cells (CGIN)?
- What does the rest of the diagnosis mean?
Sorry for so many intense questions. I am so confused and the colposcopy really sucked and the non-conclusion to my case is really upsetting me as we are really trying to conceive and not being very successful either.